[cryptography] Proving knowledge of a message with a given SHA-1 without disclosing it?
nico at cryptonector.com
Wed Feb 1 12:50:57 EST 2012
On Wed, Feb 1, 2012 at 3:49 AM, Francois Grieu <fgrieu at gmail.com> wrote:
> The talk does not give much details, and I failed to locate any article
> with a similar claim.
> I would find that result truly remarkable, and it is against my intuition.
The video you posted does help me with the intuition problem. The
idea seems to be to replace the normal arithmetic in SHA-1 with
operations from a zero-knowledge scheme such that in the end you get a
zero-knowledge proof of the operations that were applied to the input.
That makes complete sense to me, even without seeing the details.
But maybe I'm just gullible :^)
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